See below CBSE Class 10 Social Science Term 1 Sample Paper Set C with solutions. We have provided CBSE Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science as per the latest paper pattern issued by CBSE for the current academic year. All sample papers provided by our Class 10 Social Science teachers are with answers. You can see the sample paper given below and use them for more practice for Class 10 Social Science examination.
CBSE Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science Term 1 Set C
Section A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 Questions)
1. The Young Italy Movement was related to which of the following aspects?
(a) Freedom of Italy from the subjugating rule of Ottoman rulers.
(b) A mission to educate the Youth of Italy.
(c) A mission to hold elections in Italy for the first time.
(d) Unification of Italy since it was divided into various states.
Answer
D
2. Why did the initial enthusiasm of French people fade away gradually about the Civil Code?
(a) Accepted only by the elite class.
(b) Due to increased taxation and censorship
(c) Restrictions on Freedom
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer
D
3. Identify the newly designed flag which was chosen to replace the formal flag ‘Royal Standard’ in France?
(a) Red Cross
(b) Tricolour
(c) White Saltier
(d) Union Jack
Answer
B
4. What were the effects of revolutionary upheaval in France in 1830?
(a) The Bourbon dynasty, which was restored in 1815, was overthrown by liberal revolutionaries.
(b) Civil Code was implemented in France.
(c) An agreement was signed between France and England.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer
A
5. Identify the class who owned estates in the countryside and also town-houses.
(a) Peasant Class
(b) Nobility Class
(c) Aristocratic Class
(d) Clergy
Answer
C
6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the soil and their areas.
(a) Red Laterite Soil West Bengal
(b) Arid Soil Kerala
(c) Yellow and Red Soil Chhattisgarh
(d) Alluvial Soil Madhya Pradesh
Answer
C
7. India’s territorial water extends up to a distance of ………… .
(a) 22.5 Nautical Miles
(b) 12 Nautical Miles
(c) 19.2 Nautical Miles
(d) 200 Nautical Miles
Answer
B
8. Which of the following was the major objective of Agenda 21?
(a) It aims at achieving global sustainable development.
(b) Every local government should have its own local Agenda 21 to combat Environmental Degradation.
(c) It is an agenda to combat environmental damage, poverty and disease through global cooperation on common interests.
(d) All political leaders should come forward for the cause of Environment.
Answer
B
9. With people being made the decision-makers by the Madhya Pradesh government, 2.9 million hectares or about 1 per cent of India’s land area are being greened across the state through which of the following method?
(a) Waste Management
(b) Watershed Management
(c) Rainwater Harvesting
(d) None of these
Answer
B
10. Which among the following farmers need to be supported through adequate facilities for seeds, agricultural inputs, credit, etc?
(a) Small and marginal farmers
(b) Landless agricultural farmer
(c) Prosperous farmers
(d) All of these
Answer
A
11. Which of the following types of ethnic diversities is found in Lebanon?
(a) Caste divisions
(b) Regional divisions
(c) Religious divisions
(d) Gender divisions
Answer
C
12. Which among the following language is spoken by the majority of our population?
(a) English
(b) Hindi
(c) Bengali
(d) Punjabi
Answer
B
13. Which of the following is an objective of Federal system?
(a) To accommodate new territories.
(b) To safeguard and promote unity of the country.
(c) To filter people belonging to one caste or ethnic groups.
(d) To reject regional diversity.
Answer
B
14. Which among the following is not one of the principles of democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power.
(b) People are ruled through various institutions
(c) State governments are not as powerful as the central government and work under their thumb.
(d) Everyone has a voice in the shaping of public policies.
Answer
C
15. Which of the following countries emerged as an Independent state in 1948?
(a) Belgium
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) India
(d) France
Answer
B
16. Why was the States Reorganisation Commission formed? Identify the correct reason.
(a) To provide more autonomy at the local level.
(b) To recommend creation of states in India on the basis of different languages.
(c) To share an agreement between states and people to live together.
(d) To provide special provisions according to states specification.
Answer
B
17. Which group of countries follows the Unitary System?
(a) France, Germany and India
(b) United Arab Emirates, China and Sri Lanka
(c) Belgium, India and Spain
(d) U.S.A., Japan and Spain
Answer
B
18. What is the purpose of publishing the HDR for the UNDP?
(a) To tell how to adjust inequalities
(b) To measure how development has improved human life.
(c) To emphasizes the importance of individuals and their ability to unleash their maximum potential.
(d) All of the above
Answer
B
19. Which of the following way can be used to help the vulnerable sections?
(a) They should be offered clothes
(b) They should be provided with food security allowances.
(c) They should be offered greater, safer and varied opportunities to work.
(d) They should be provided with minimum education.
Answer
C
20. Which of the following will be the aspiration of a working woman?
(a) To have a safe and secure work environment at the office.
(b) To have better technologies that can store data easily.
(c) To have good job opportunities where her education can be made use of.
(d) To have a fully functioning day care facilities in the office premises.
Answer
A
21. Which of the following takes place in the primary sector?
(a) Processing of natural resources
(b) Extraction of natural resources
(c) Transporting of natural resources
(d) Selling of natural products
Answer
B
22. Development is possible without the overuse of resources. In this context, choose the correct option which describes the importance of sustainable development.
(a) It helps in maintaining ecological balance.
(b) It lays emphasis on quality of life.
(c) It promotes an efficient use of natural resources.
(d) All of the above
Answer
D
23. Which activity is termed as activity of tertiary sector?
(a) Wheat production
(b) Mobile production
(c) Construction of a dam
(d) Fishing
Answer
C
24. What proportion of the country is over using their groundwater reserves?
(a) One-fourth
(b) One-eighth
(c) One-third
(d) One-tenth
Answer
C
Section B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 Questions)
25. The given image depicts the ‘Planting of Tree of Liberty’ painted by Karl Fritz. In which country is the scene taking place? Identify from the given options.
(a) Leipzig, Germany
(b) Frankfurt, Germany
(c) Paris, France
(d) Zweibrücken, Germany
Answer
D
26. Which of the following option/s is/are correct about the Female allegory of France?
(i) She was named Marianne.
(ii) She took part in the French Revolution.
(iii) She was a symbol of National Unity.
(iv) Her characteristic were drawn from those of liberty and the Republic.
Options
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Answer
C
27. Which country had been a part of the ‘Ottoman Empire’ since the 15th century? Identify from the following options:
(a) Spain
(b) Greece
(c) France
(d) Germany
Answer
B
28. Identify the personality who was an Austrian Chancellor.
(a) Duke Metternich
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Louis Philippe
(d) Johann Gottfried
Answer
A
29. Identify the crop with the help of clues given below
• High temperature is required during the time of growth.
• Grows well on well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year.
(a) Rubber
(b) Cotton
(c) Jute
(d) Coffee
Answer
C
30. Which type of soil is most suitable for growing the crop of Cashew Nuts?
(a) Alluvial Soil
(b) Red Laterite Soil
(c) Arid Soil
(d) Black Soil
Answer
B
31. Consider the following statements about Holding-Together Federation.
(i) A large country divides its power between constituent states and the national government.
(ii) The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-à-vis the states.
(iii) The Central government and the state always seem to have equal powers.
(iv) Constituent states have unequal powers.
Codes
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)
Answer
C
32. Which of the following is/are the aspects of an ideal federal system?
(a) Agreement between the states and people to live together.
(b) Mutual trust
(c) Accommodates regional diversity
(d) All of the above
Answer
D
33. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of life and global peace.
Reason (R) They promote equality among classes.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer
C
34. Match the following.
Codes
(a) A → 1, B → 3, C → 4, D → 2
(b) A → 3, B → 4, C → 1, D → 2
(c) A → 4, B → 2, C → 3, D → 1
(d) A → 2, B → 1, C → 4, D → 3
Answer
B
35. Which among the following is not a scheduled language of India?
(a) Santhali
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Angika
(d) Sindhi
Answer
C
36. Identify the administrative body of Indian Federal system with the help of the following information.
• It is a forum to discuss local governance and development.
• All the decisions are taken through this and no decision is official and valid without the consent of this body at the village level.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Block Samiti
(b) Gram Sabha
(c) Zila Parishad
(d) Municipality
Answer
B
37. Which of the following can be considered a form of sharing of powers between the governments?
(i) Division of Powers between the Chief Minister and Governor.
(ii) Division of Powers between Central and State legislatures.
(iii) Power sharing between Union and the States through lists of subjects.
(iv) Power division between Bureaucracy and Executive.
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iv)
(d) Both (ii) and (iii)
Answer
D
38. Identify the correct statement/s about the power sharing arrangement in Belgium.
(i) Belgian government adopted communism.
(ii) Belgian government amended their constitution four times.
(iii) In Belgium, policy of accommodation was adopted.
(iv) Dutch people were given favours in jobs by the Belgian government.
Options
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (iii) and (iv)
(d) Both (i) and (iv)
Answer
B
39. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) After the end of Civil War, Lebanon’s leaders came together and agreed to some basic rules for power sharing among different communities.
Reason (R) This was a temporary arrangement to stop the civil war.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer
C
40. Choose the correctly matched pair.
(i) Belgium- Linguistically variant populations
(ii) India- Racially variant populations
(iii) Sri Lanka- Religiously variant populations
(iv) Lebanon-Linguistically variant populations
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3 and 4
(c) Only 1 and 3
(d) All of these
Answer
C
41. Analyse the table given below and answer the question that follows.
The source shows a database of workers employed in different sectors (in millions)
Reena is working as an accountant in a company where she receives poor working conditions especially in terms of wages which is much below than in the formal sector.
What percentage of Tertiary sector workers in India is employed in Unorganised Sector according to the table?
(a) 71.2%
(b) 80%
(c) 81.7%
(d) 91.7%
Answer
C
42. If BMI is less than 18.5 then the person would be considered as which of the following?
(a) Over weight
(b) Under nourished
(c) Under weight
(d) Malnourished
Answer
B
43. Anubha has taken a loan of 10 Lakh at an interest of 5 percent, from the bank in which she is working. Anubha works in which sector of the economy?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) All of these
Answer
C
44. Identify the sector which includes activities like services offered by the professionals.
(a) Primary sector
(b) Tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) Unorganised sector
Answer
B
45. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Increase in population and industrialisation lead to increased use for fossil fuels.
Reason (R) Overuse of conventional energy resources has resulted in the phenomenon of Green house effect.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer
A
46. In which sector is seasonal and disguised unemployment most prevalent in India?
(a) Primary or agricultural sector
(b) Secondary sector
(c) Tertiary sector
(d) Public sector
Answer
A
Section C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section.)
Directions (Q. Nos. 47-52) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.
Wheat This is the second most important cereal crop. It is the main food crop, in North and North-Western part of the country. This Rabi crop requires a cool growing season and a bright sunshine at the time of ripening. It requires 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall evenly distributed over the growing season. There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country – the Ganga-Satluj plains in the North-West and black soil region of the Deccan. The major wheat-producing states are Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar and Rajasthan.
47. Wheat is the second most important cereal crop in India after which of the following crops? Select the best suitable option from the following.
(a) Maize
(b) Paddy
(c) Sugarcane
(d) Pulses
Answer
B
48. What kind of geographical conditions are required for the growth of wheat? Choose the correct option from the following.
(a) 50 to 75 cm of annual rainfall
(b) Bright sunshine at the time of ripening.
(c) A cool growing season
(d) All of these
Answer
D
49. Which among the following is also a Rabi crop like wheat? Choose the correct option.
(a) Paddy
(b) Mustard
(c) Maize
(d) Bajra
Answer
B
50. Which type of soil is required for wheat production? Identify from the following options.
(a) Sandy soil
(b) Clayey soil
(c) Loamy soil
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer
D
51. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect option from the given options.
(i) Wheat is the second most important cereal crop.
(ii) It provides food to people residing in the North and North-Western part of the country.
(iii) Bright sunshine at the time of ripening is important for this crop.
(iv) The major wheat-producing states are Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Andhra Pradesh.
Options
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Only (iv)
Answer
D
52. In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A) Wheat is the main food crop in the North and North-Western India.
Reason (R) There are two important wheat-growing zones in the country the Ganga Satluj plains in the North-West and Black soil region on the Deccan.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer
B
Directions (Q. Nos. 53-58) Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option.
Other Romantics such as the German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder (1744-1803) claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people-das volk. It was through folk songs, folk poetry and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation (volksgeist) was popularised. So, collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was essential to the project of nation-building. The emphasis on vernacular language and the collection of local folklore was not just to recover an ancient national spirit, but also to carry the modern nationalist message to large audiences who were mostly illiterate.
53. Which among the following statement best describes the Romantic Movement? Identify from the given options.
(a) It was about the emotions of patriotism towards one’s state.
(b) It was a cultural movement which sought to develop nationalist sentiments.
(c) It was a literary movement to focus on vernacular languages.
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer
B
54. Who among the following celebrated nationalism through opera music? Identify from the given options.
(a) Grimm Brothers
(b) Mazzini
(c) Karol Karpinski
(d) Garibaldi
Answer
C
55. Why was it necessary to give emphasis on vernacular language and the collection of local folklore? Choose the best suitable option from the following.
(a) To recover an ancient national spirit.
(b) To carry the modern nationalist message to large audiences.
(c) For Territorial expansion
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer
D
56. Romantic poets and artists …………… .
(a) Criticised the glorification of reason and science.
(b) Focused on intuition, emotions and mystical feelings.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) To popularise the spirit of nation
Answer
C
57. Volksgeist is the spirit of nation that consist of which of the following?
(a) It consist of intellectual traits that define nations.
(b) It consist of moral traits that define nations.
(c) It consist of cultural traits that define nations.
(d) All of the above
Answer
D
58. Who among the following philosophers claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people? Identify from the given options:
(a) Johann Gottfried
(b) William I
(c) Victor Emmaneul II
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini
Answer
A
Section D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)
On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.
59. In the given map a major producer of a crop has been marked as ‘A’. Identify the crop and choose the correct option.
(a) Punjab- Wheat
(b) Punjab – Tea
(c) Himachal Pradesh- Wheat
(d) Himachal Pradesh- Tea
Answer
A
60. In the given map a major producer of a crop has been marked as ‘B’. Identify the crop and choose the correct option.
(a) Karnataka-Wheat
(b) Karnataka- Rice
(c) Tamil Nadu- Rice
(d) Tamil Nadu- Wheat
Answer
C
