See below CBSE Class 12 Political Science Term 1 Sample Paper Set B with solutions. We have provided CBSE Sample Papers for Class 12 Political Science as per the latest paper pattern issued by CBSE for the current academic year. All sample papers provided by our Class 12 Political Science teachers are with answers. You can see the sample paper given below and use them for more practice for Class 12 Political Science examination.
CBSE Sample Paper for Class 12 Political Science Term 1 Set B
Section – A
1. United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organsation (UNESCO) was established on ……………. .
(a) 4th November, 1946
(b) 8th November, 1945
(c) 11th November, 1945
(d) 23th November, 1946
Answer
A
2. Consider the following statements regarding Eastern Alliance.
(i) It was also known as Warsaw Pact led by Soviet Union.
(ii) It was created in 1950.
(iii) Its principal function was to counter NATO’s force in Europe.
(iv) It used military power to bring countries into their alliance.
Which of the statements are correct?
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) All of these
Answer
C
3. Which of the following statement(s) with regard to the Tajikistan conflict is/are incorrect?
(a) The main zone of conflict was the South zone.
(b) The Civil War started in 1991.
(c) It was decade long civil war fuelled primarily by a clash between ethnic groups.
(d) The civil war came to an end in 2001.
Answer
B
4. In which year Pakistan launched armed attacks in the Rann of Kutch area of Gujarat?
(a) April 1965
(b) April 1966
(c) May 1965
(d) May 1966
Answer
A
5. ………… war was based on the logic of deterrence.
(a) First World War
(b) Second World War
(c) Cold War
(d) None of these
Answer
C
6. Which one of the following statements related to Indo-China War (1962) is correct?
(a) China could not cross the line of control.
(b) The Soviet Union remained neutral during the conflict.
(c) The Soviet Union helped China against India.
(d) The Chinese forces did not withdraw their troops back to earlier position.
Answer
B
7. The state where Operation Flood started?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Odisha
(c) Kerala
(d) Bihar
Answer
A
8. When was India’s New Economic Policy launched?
(a) 1999
(b) 1989
(c) 1988
(d) 1998
Answer
A
9. Which one of the following leaders played an important role in the integration of Princely States with India?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) C Rajagopalachari
(d) BR Ambedkar
Answer
B
10. Arrange in correct sequence.
(i) India joins the UN.
(ii) Yalta Conference of the Big three i.e Rooserelt, Churchill and Stalin.
(iii) Tehran Conference declaration of three powers i.e. US, Britain and Soviet Union.
(iv) Signing of the Atlantic Charter by US President Roosevelt and British Prime Minister Churchill.
Codes
(a) (i), (iv), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)
(c) (ii), (iv), (iii) and (i)
(d) (iii), (iv), (ii) and (i)
Answer
B
11. Who was India’s Deputy Prime Minister and the Home Minister during the crucial period immediately following Independence?
(a) C Rajagopalachari
(b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sarojini Naidu
Answer
B
12. There was an experiment of ‘bilingual’ Bombay state consisting of Gujarati and Marathi – speaking people. After a popular agitation, the states of …………… and ……………were created in 1960.
(a) Meghalaya and Jharkhand
(b) Manipur and Tripura
(c) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(d) Punjab and Manipur
Answer
C
13. Name the two countries against which the Operation Infinite Reach was launched?
(a) Afghanistan and Sudan
(b) USA and Iraq
(c) Kuwait and USA
(d) None of these
Answer
A
14. Which country is referred to as a Hegemonic power?
(a) Kuwait
(b) Canada
(c) Sudan
(d) USA
Answer
D
15. Who among the following Prime Ministers, wishes to review the ‘no first use’ policy?
(a) PM Narendra Modi
(b) PM Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) PM Manmohan Singh
(d) All of these
Answer
A
16. Which of the following is/are correct with regard to Vishalandhra Movement?
(i) It demanded that the Telugu speaking areas should be separated from Madras province.
(ii) The protest began in the areas of old Madras province which included present day Tamil Nadu, parts of Andhra Pradesh, Kerala and Karnataka.
(iii) The movement gathered momentum as a result of Central Government’s vacillation.
(iv) All of the above
Codes
(a) Only (i)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Only (iv)
Answer
D
17. The two superpowers tried to control the smaller nations during the Cold War era because ……… .
(a) they wanted to expand their area of influence.
(b) they wanted to cooperate with smaller countries.
(c) they wanted to establish their military bases in smaller countries.
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer
D
18. The ruler of which state first announced Independence Statehood?
(a) The Ruler of Travancore
(b) The Nizam of Hyderabad
(c) The Ruler of Mysore
(d) The Nawab of Bhopal
Answer
A
19. Which state was carved out of Assam from the following?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Sikkim
(c) Manipur
(d) Tripura
Answer
A
20. The Foreign Policy of Independent India vigorously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating the policy of
(a) non-alignment
(b) no nuclear weapons
(c) military expansion
(d) no Cold War
Answer
A
21. Choose the odd one out of the following.
(a) World War II 1945
(b) Kuwait Invasion 1990
(c) Presidency of Bill Clinton 1992
(d) Pearl Harbour 1945
Answer
D
22. In August 1990, which country was invaded by Iraq?
(a) Saudi Arabia
(b) USA
(c) Kuwait
(d) None of these
Answer
C
23. What does the Berlin Wall Symbolise?
(a) Division between socialism and capitalism.
(b) Division between capitalist and the communist world.
(c) Division between regionalism and communism.
(d) None of the above
Answer
B
24. Which of the following ideas did not form part of the early phase of India’s development policy?
(i) Planning
(ii) Liberalisation
(iii) Co-operative Farming
(iv) Self-sufficiency
Select the code.
(a) Only (ii)
(b) Both (ii) and (iv)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer
A
Section – B
25. ………… policy has been adopted by NITI Aayog.
(a) Make in India
(b) Come on India
(c) Start-up India
(d) Swachch Bharat
Answer
A
26. ………… play an important role in the economy of developing countries like India.
(a) Private sectors
(b) Public sectors
(c) Union Ministers
(d) State Government
Answer
B
27. In the given question, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A) India supports an increase in the number of both permanent and non-permanent members of UN.
Reason (R) India itself also wishes to be a permanent member in a restructuring UN.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer
B
28. Who among the following leaders gave the famous speech of ‘tryst with destiny’?
(i) Jawaharlal Nehru
(ii) Mahatma Gandhi
(iii) BR Ambedkar
(iv) None of these
Select the correct codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii) (b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Only (iv)
Answer
B
29. Standstill Agreement was signed in which year?
(a) November 1947
(b) November 1948
(c) October 1947
(d) September 1948
Answer
A
30. In the given question, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A)Development could not be left to private sectors, that therewas the need for the government to develop a design or plan for development.
Reason (R) The Bombay Plan wanted the state to take major initiatives in industrial and other economic investments.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer
B
31. The declaration on the disintegration of the USSR and the formation of the Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) came as a surprise to the other republics.
What does CIS stands for?
(a) Commonwealth of Independent States
(b) Commonwealth of International Successor
(c) Common Independent States
(d) Commonwealth of Independent Sovereigns
Answer
A
32. The United Nations was established as a successor to the League of Nations in 1945. In the light of the statement, which of the statements are not correct?
(a) It was set up through the signing of United Nations Charter by 51 states.
(b) The League of Nations was founded on 10th February, 1921.
(c) It was established as a result of Paris Peace Conference.
(d) All of the above
Answer
B
33. In the given question, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A) Reforms were necessary to keep the USSR abreast of the information and technological revolutions taking place in the West.
Reason (R) Mikhail Gorbachev, who had become General Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1985, sought to reform this system.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer
A
34. In 1970 the rural development programme called ………… was organised for cooperative milk producers of India.
(a) Operation Flood
(b) Operation White
(c) Operation Milk
(d) Operation India
Answer
A
35. ………… nicknamed the ‘Milkman of India’ played a crucial role in the story of Gujarat Cooperative Milk and Marketing Federation Ltd. that launched Amul.
(a) Norman Borlaug
(b) M.S Swaminatham
(c) Verghese Kurien
(d) None of these
Answer
C
36. In the given question, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A) The Cold War was not simply a matter of power rivalries, of military alliances, and of the balance of power.
Reason (R) These were accompanied by a real ideological conflict as well, a difference over the best and the most appropriate way of organising political, economic, and social life all over the world.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer
A
37. Consider the following statements regarding Panchsheel:
(i) Nehru gave utmost importance to world peace in his policy planning.
(ii) He was main architect of foreign policy after independence.
(iii) Panchsheel was signed on 30rd April, 1955.
Select the correct statements.
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Both (i) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) Only (iii)
Answer
A
38. Which of the following statement is correct?
(i) Russian Parliament declares its independence from Soviet Union in 1990 June.
(ii) Independence Movement begins in Lithuania in 1988.
Select the correct codes.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer
C
39. In the given question, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A) The foreign policy of independent India vigorously pursued the dream of a peaceful world by advocating the policy of non-alignment, by reducing Cold War tensions and by contributing human resources to the UN peacekeeping operations.
Reason (R) India continued to oppose Pakistan on joining the Western Camp.
Codes
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer
C
40. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Shock Therapy?
(i) The Shock Therapy administered in the 1990’s did not lead the people into the promised Utopia of mass consumption.
(ii) The value of the ruble, the Russian currency increased dramatically.
Selet the correct codes.
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(b) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer
A
41. The accession of which princely states was resolved after plebiscite that confirmed people’s desire to join India?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Junagarh
(c) Manipur
(d) Kashmir
Answer
B
42. Which of the following states initially refused to join the Indian Union?
(a) Manipur
(b) Kashmir
(c) Punjab
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer
D
43. How the smaller states in the alliances used the link of the superpowers for their own purpose?
(a) Financial aid against their local regional rivals was granted.
(b) Protection of their interests and weapons were given to them.
(c) Unlimited powers were allotted to them.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer
D
44. The Trusteeship Council was established to provide ………. supervision for ………. Trust Territories and to make sure that adequate steps were taken to prepare the Territories for self-government.
(a) national, 11
(b) international, 15
(c) international, 11
(d) national, 15
Answer
C
45. It was a Land Reform System which not only released land from the clutches of a class that has litile interest in agriculture, but it also reduced the capacity of landlords to dominate politics. What is the name of the system?
(a) Mahalwari System
(b) Zamindari Sytem
(c) Ryotwari System
(d) None of these
Answer
B
46. Which of the following region became the main arena of conflict between the superpowers?
(a) Asia
(b) Australia
(c) Europe
(d) Russia
Answer
C
47. Among the following statements, which is not the reason for strained relationship between India and China.
(a) In 1950, China annexed Tibet which removed a historical buffer between two countries.
(b) Dalai Lama obtained political asylum in India in 1959.
(c) China and India were involved in a border conflict in 1962.
(d) None of the above
Answer
D
48. …………… was an undisputed leader of the North-Western Frontier Province and known as Frontier Gandhi.
(a) C Rajagopalachari
(b) Potti Sreeramulu
(c) Sukumar Sen
(d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan
Answer
D
Section – C
49. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows.
When does the cartoon depicts?
(a) Relations between people and rulers in Princely States.
(b) Relations between only higher authorities
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer
A
50. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follow.
A big tilt towards the public sector been show in the picture depicts ………… .
(a) government in favour of mixed economy
(b) government providing much power to public sector
(c) government in favour of capitalist economy
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer
D
51. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follow.
Which year does the event shown in picture happened?
(a) 1962
(b) 1974
(c) 1969
(d) 1950
Answer
A
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The two superpowers were keen on expanding their spheres of influence in different parts of the world. In a world sharply divided between the two alliance systems, a state was supposed to remain tied to its protective superpower to limit the influence of the other superpowers and its allies. …… Most countries of Western Europe sided with the U.S. and those of the Eastern Europe joined the Soviet camp.
52. Most countries of Western Europe joined the ……………… .
(a) NAM
(b) Eastern Alliance
(c) Western Alliance
(d) Remained Neutral
Answer
C
53. Why did the Allies want to remain tied with one of the Superpowers?
(a) To stand still in the world economy.
(b) To get the benefits in case of emergency or trade purposes.
(c) To enjoy being a part of the Superpower bloc.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer
D
54. Why did the superpowers want to bring other countries into their camps?
(a) To control them
(b) To spread their influence
(c) To use them as their military base at the time of conflict
(d) All of the above
Answer
D
55. Two superpowers were keen on expanding their spheres of influence because ……………… .
(a) it was a struggle for power in the world.
(b) it was a struggle to represent a dominant ideology.
(c) both the superpowers wanted to control the world in economic, political and social fields.
(d) All of the above
Answer
D
Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The Western Alliance was formalised into an organisation, the North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO), which came into existence in April 1949. It was an association of twelve states which declared that armed attack on any one of them in Europe or North America would be regarded as an attack on all of them. Each of these states would be obliged to help the other. The Eastern Alliance, known as the Warsaw Pact, was led by the Soviet Union. It was created in 1955 and its principal function was to counter NATO’s forces in Europe.
56. NATO stands for ……………… .
(a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
(b) North Arctic Treaties Organisation
(c) North America Treaty Organisation
(d) None of these
Answer
A
57. Which of the following statement is incorrect about NATO’s policy?
(a) It was an association of twelve states of Western Alliance.
(b) Attack on any one of states within the association will be regarded as an attack on all of them.
(c) Its main function was to control the least developed countries.
(d) It came into existence in April 1949.
Answer
C
58. Which statement is correct about Warsaw Pact?
(a) It was also known as Eastern Alliance.
(b) It was led by the Soviet Union.
(c) It was created to reform United Nations Organisation.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer
D
59. Which of the following is the function of Warsaw Pact?
(a) To counter NATO’s forces in Europe.
(b) To maintain peaceful relations with NATO.
(c) To capture more and more European Nations into their bloc.
(d) All of the above
Answer
A
60. NATO came into existence in …………….
(a) March 1939
(b) May 1949
(c) April 1949
(d) August 1939
Answer
C